why do sellers change asking price to sold after a sale?

[G1911]

Originally Posted by Peter_Spaeth

I just checked the PSA website for Anson in a 3, just as an example. There was a sale in 2010 and one in 2017. That's it. So I might well look here as well just in case there was something more recent.

Which BST post have you tried to go back to to value a card you could not find relevant prices for in one of the databases designed for such purpose, and then been stymied because the seller didn’t have a price, which may or may not be what it actually sold or traded for? Did you message that member to ask afterwards?

[Peter_Spaeth]

Originally Posted by G1911

Which BST post have you tried to go back to to value a card you could not find relevant prices for in one of the databases designed for such purpose, and then been stymied because the seller didn’t have a price, which may or may not be what it actually sold or traded for? Did you message that member to ask afterwards?

I'm not playing this game any more on your turf where you have reframed the question. I think people should leave the information rather than facilitate their buyer trying to overcharge someone else, and to me that answer does not put the burden of proof on me to conclusively show the utility of the information in every case. I say the burden is on you to justify the affirmative deletion of information that was made public. You disagree and that's fine.