1952Boyntoncollector Outing prices on BST?

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by bnorth

B) How by any stretch of the imagination does PM sent mean the item is now sold?

So, if I'm looking at a BST listing and someone has posted "PM sent" to the seller, what am I supposed to assume? That the one who posted the "PM sent" is PMing the seller to invite him out for a beer? Come on, use a little bit of common sense.

[bnorth]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

So, if I'm looking at a BST listing and someone has posted "PM sent" to the seller, what am I supposed to assume? That the one who posted the "PM sent" is PMing the seller to invite him out for a beer? Come on, use a little bit of common sense.

Try some common sense yourself. I know you are on here to argue so common sense tells me I am the dumb one in this instance for even considering that you would use it.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by bnorth

Try some common sense yourself. I know you are on here to argue so common sense tells me I am the dumb one in this instance for even considering that you would use it.

Typical douchebag self, huh Ben?

[pokerplyr80]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

So, if I'm looking at a BST listing and someone has posted "PM sent" to the seller, what am I supposed to assume? That the one who posted the "PM sent" is PMing the seller to invite him out for a beer? Come on, use a little bit of common sense.

I would assume the person inquired about the card and made an offer less than the asking price. Nothing more.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by pokerplyr80

I would assume the person inquired about the card and made an offer less than the asking price. Nothing more.

How do you determine the amount of the offer by only "PM sent"? Seriously, please explain.

[pokerplyr80]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

How do you determine the amount of the offer by only "PM sent"? Seriously, please explain.

Because I would also assume someone willing to pay the asking price would post I'll take it, not pm sent.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by pokerplyr80

Because I would also assume someone willing to pay the asking price would post I'll take it, not pm sent.

So which one took it?

http://www.net54baseball.com/showthread.php?t=244654

[1952boyntoncollector]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

So which one took it?

http://www.net54baseball.com/showthread.php?t=244654

Dont know who took it but i do note the secret asking price is still there and also there is no post from me quoting it.

[pokerplyr80]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

So which one took it?

http://www.net54baseball.com/showthread.php?t=244654

No way to tell from that post. Perhaps neither. My point is that to assume a sale was made because someone posted pm sent defies common sense. Any time I've listed a card for sale here I get a few questions, requests for better scans, and low ball offers before either a sale is made or the card gets sent off to pwcc.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by pokerplyr80

My point is that to assume a sale was made because someone posted pm sent defies common sense.

I get your point, you're not getting mine. I believe you're whole a lot smarter than Ben, so let's try this again. My original point was this. We were talking about BST interference and I said "Nice card" is no more interference than "PM sent." If one wants to inquire about a card, send a PM. Is there really a need to announce that you're sending the PM (I'm not talking about the cases where the poster has sent multiple PMs that weren't responded to)??? Why is "Nice card" interference but "PM sent" (when the purpose of the PM isn't to purchase the card) is not interference? I expect Ben not got get that, but surely you do????

[1952boyntoncollector]

Originally Posted by pokerplyr80

Because I would also assume someone willing to pay the asking price would post I'll take it, not pm sent.

Some sellers are lazy but if i see a pm sent, and a few days pass i assume it wasnt for asking price otherwise 'sold' would be on there. I also assume maybe they sent a pm but there was no answer so they posted it on the forum to tell the seller they tried to reach them. Maybe they wanted more photos who knows... But yeah, its just assumptions, maybe it did sell. I wouldn't actually know anything.

[Dewey]

It seems logical that an offer of asking price would be "I'll take it." PM sent might mean registering interest, asking for more detail, or making an offer under asking. All of those are reasonable assumptions, especially the one about an offer under asking. Am I to assume a PM'd offer at or over asking?

Then to clear matters up, a seller on the ball usually comments, "PMs replied to" to make clear the item is still for sale.

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

How do you determine the amount of the offer by only "PM sent"? Seriously, please explain.