1952Boyntoncollector Outing prices on BST?

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by Republicaninmass

From the BST "Rules section"


There should be no interference by 3rd parties within the Buy/Sell/Trade areas. Third parties are those not involved in a transaction.

I'm not trying to be petty, but you really need to define "interference." I'll give you two examples.

A) Seller lists a card on the BST. Someone posts "nice card." What harm have they done?
B) Seller lists a card on the BST. Someone posts "PM sent" but only wants to beat up on the seller's asking price, doesn't make a commitment to purchase and has only wasted the seller's time. Now, anybody else looking at that BST listing is going to see "PM sent" and think the item is not longer for sale.

Which is more interference, A or B? I guarantee B happens a lot more than A.

[bnorth]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

I'm not trying to be petty, but you really need to define "interference." I'll give you two examples.

A) Seller lists a card on the BST. Someone posts "nice card." What harm have they done?
B) Seller lists a card on the BST. Someone posts "PM sent" but only wants to beat up on the seller's asking price, doesn't make a commitment to purchase and has only wasted the seller's time. Now, anybody else looking at that BST listing is going to see "PM sent" and think the item is not longer for sale.

Which is more interference, A or B? I guarantee B happens a lot more than A.

This is really simple.
A) gives the seller a free bump to the top of the listings for absolutely no reason and is not fair to those that fallow the rules.

B) How by any stretch of the imagination does PM sent mean the item is now sold?

As far as prices being removed I am with Jake, I hate it also.

[FirstYearCards]

My last post on this.

All this is very petty, I know. I do believe the seller and/or buyer should have the right to decided if the price is removed, even after listing it publicly. Third parties should leave the thread alone. It may not be a negative to you but you can not know how other people view your comments/quotes.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by bnorth

B) How by any stretch of the imagination does PM sent mean the item is now sold?

So, if I'm looking at a BST listing and someone has posted "PM sent" to the seller, what am I supposed to assume? That the one who posted the "PM sent" is PMing the seller to invite him out for a beer? Come on, use a little bit of common sense.

[bnorth]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

So, if I'm looking at a BST listing and someone has posted "PM sent" to the seller, what am I supposed to assume? That the one who posted the "PM sent" is PMing the seller to invite him out for a beer? Come on, use a little bit of common sense.

Try some common sense yourself. I know you are on here to argue so common sense tells me I am the dumb one in this instance for even considering that you would use it.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by bnorth

Try some common sense yourself. I know you are on here to argue so common sense tells me I am the dumb one in this instance for even considering that you would use it.

Typical douchebag self, huh Ben?

[pokerplyr80]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

So, if I'm looking at a BST listing and someone has posted "PM sent" to the seller, what am I supposed to assume? That the one who posted the "PM sent" is PMing the seller to invite him out for a beer? Come on, use a little bit of common sense.

I would assume the person inquired about the card and made an offer less than the asking price. Nothing more.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by pokerplyr80

I would assume the person inquired about the card and made an offer less than the asking price. Nothing more.

How do you determine the amount of the offer by only "PM sent"? Seriously, please explain.

[pokerplyr80]

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

How do you determine the amount of the offer by only "PM sent"? Seriously, please explain.

Because I would also assume someone willing to pay the asking price would post I'll take it, not pm sent.

[vintagetoppsguy]

Originally Posted by pokerplyr80

Because I would also assume someone willing to pay the asking price would post I'll take it, not pm sent.

So which one took it?

http://www.net54baseball.com/showthread.php?t=244654

[1952boyntoncollector]

Originally Posted by pokerplyr80

Because I would also assume someone willing to pay the asking price would post I'll take it, not pm sent.

Some sellers are lazy but if i see a pm sent, and a few days pass i assume it wasnt for asking price otherwise 'sold' would be on there. I also assume maybe they sent a pm but there was no answer so they posted it on the forum to tell the seller they tried to reach them. Maybe they wanted more photos who knows... But yeah, its just assumptions, maybe it did sell. I wouldn't actually know anything.

[Dewey]

It seems logical that an offer of asking price would be "I'll take it." PM sent might mean registering interest, asking for more detail, or making an offer under asking. All of those are reasonable assumptions, especially the one about an offer under asking. Am I to assume a PM'd offer at or over asking?

Then to clear matters up, a seller on the ball usually comments, "PMs replied to" to make clear the item is still for sale.

Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy

How do you determine the amount of the offer by only "PM sent"? Seriously, please explain.