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#1
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Agreed, but for me, mostly for other reasons.
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Net 54-- the discussion board where people resent discussions. ![]() My avatar is a sketch by my son who is an art school graduate. Some of his sketches and paintings are at https://www.jamesspaethartwork.com/ |
#2
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Same here (snip snip).
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#3
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I've never completely bought into the argument that shill bidding affects market values. Obviously if a lot is won by a consignor or someone acting on his behalf, that does artificially inflate the market value (comps) of the card(s) in that lot.
But if the lot is won by a buyer not connected to the auction house or consignor, can we really argue that the value is artificially inflated? Other than the public reporting, how is that transaction different than a buyer negotiating and purchasing the item from a dealer at a show? There is an independent buyer and seller who have agreed to a price. Does that not establish a market price? Why do we need a third party (the underbidder) to establish a market?
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#4
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Also, if someone does a comp on one of my cards, I laugh. I generally don't sell average cards and get higher prices than average "comps". .
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Leon Luckey www.luckeycards.com |
#5
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Net 54-- the discussion board where people resent discussions. ![]() My avatar is a sketch by my son who is an art school graduate. Some of his sketches and paintings are at https://www.jamesspaethartwork.com/ |
#6
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I think ed's point is that the ultimate high bidder was "willing" to pay a higher price therefore it should not be "" inflated. I disagree with this sentiment.
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#7
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Right. Where the price of a stock is inflated because the issuer withheld material information, people are still "willing" to pay the inflated price, but that does not negate fraud. It is a non sequitur IMO.
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Net 54-- the discussion board where people resent discussions. ![]() My avatar is a sketch by my son who is an art school graduate. Some of his sketches and paintings are at https://www.jamesspaethartwork.com/ Last edited by Peter_Spaeth; 05-06-2025 at 11:03 AM. |
#8
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again, correct. market manipulation is an objective fact. non-correlative with the subjective decision by any individual buyer to participate in said market after the fact. entirely different discussion
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#9
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yes. value is subjective, markets are objective. individuals pull from market data to correlate perceived subjective value with mass objective value and attempt to deduce best paths forward (ie 'does how i value this card correlate with how others value this card? + if so/not, how do i proceed accordingly?). if the market perception of a card value is inflated by bid pumping and does not accurately reflect 'real data' (ie real buyers) -- that is artificial inflation of market value; skews market data for a buyer's interfacing w/ subjective valuation vs market.
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#10
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