General card valuation question

[HOF_Forever]

Originally Posted by Rhotchkiss

Just an FYI that the hammer is 83.33% of the final price, not 80%.

For example, the hammer is $100, meaning the 20% BP is $20, and the final price (or real comp per the OP’s question) is $120. $100/$120 is 83.33%.

Another example…. Hammer is $8,600, meaning the 20% BP is $1,720, and the final price is $10,320. $8,600/$10,320 = 83.33%

So you do add 20% to the hammer, but the hammer ends up being 83.33% of the final price. The example above barely nets the seller what they hammer was, which would have been $833.33, in order to yield a $1000 final price.

Also, nobody pays a seller fee in sports auctions anymore.

Otherwise, I agree that when doing a private deal, somewhere between the “final price” comp and 83.33% thereof is fair and creates a double win, where the seller gets more than hammer and the buyer pays less than final price

Thanks for adding the detail!

I was being a little too loose with the numbers to get the idea across 😀