Would you follow through and pay? Brady's last TD

[Peter_Spaeth]

Originally Posted by Smarti5051

Assuming Tom Brady does throw another touchdown in the NFL, is the statement that the football is the "last touchdown of Tom Brady's career" true of false? It is false. Maybe not intentionally, but it is false. Had Leland not made that written claim in the listing, and simply said the football was "the last touchdown of the 2022 season before Tom Brady announced his retirement," then everything Leland said would have been factual and uncontradicted. But, in this case, Leland affirmatively stated it was the last touchdown of Tom Brady's career. Was the statement material to the sale? Clearly. So, if the entire contract is premised on this football being the last touchdown pass of Brady's career, and Leland represented it as such in the listing, the fact that it is not the last touchdown of Tom Brady's career precludes Leland from delivering the exact consideration represented.

A good lawyer for Leland would have put an asterisk after "career" and included a note at the bottom to the effect of: "Leland does not control nor make any claim as to the possibility that Tom Brady may some day return to play in the NFL and the representations in this listing are limited to past events and Tom Brady's representation at the conclusion of the 2021-2022 season that he has retired from the NFL. Any bidder on this item acknowledges and agrees that any future action by Tom Brady, including but not limited to returning to the NFL, will not void or alter the obligation to pay for this item."

It's a weird case because the statement was true when made and when the buyer agreed to pay and the contract was formed. It becomes false by virtue of a later event. Is that a misrepresentation, or a changed circumstance excusing performance? I understand your point of course, it just feels like the latter to me. The contract was valid and enforceable at formation.