"What if" an Umpire's ruling was legit

[philliesfan]

This is more of a "What would be the rule if this happened". I am sure there is a current rule in place but I don't know what it is.

A batter has 1 strike on him. He fouls the next pitch. The catcher runs 20 feet back looking for the ball in the air but can't locate it because the ball was fouled straight up in the air. The batter sees it coming down to home plate and takes another swing and hits the ball into left field. Is this is hit? What if he swung and missed, is that strike three? Is it interference?

Would be interested to hear the ruling

Thanks,
Robert

[frankbmd]

A few calls in the playoffs involving catcher interference (Grandal I think), a base runner hit by a batted ball (Braun), fan interference (Altuve's lost home run) and runner interference (Machado's aggressive (???) slides to break up double plays), so

I thought the previous post was going to say the catcher finally locates the ball straight up and that it lands on the umpire preventing him from catching it.

Alternatively if an umpire inadvertently diverts or blocks a base runner, is there such a thing as umpire interference?

Or if an umpire is hit by a batted ball is the umpire out?

[scooter729]

If the bat intentionally hits the ball a second time (more realistically, maybe on a bunt?), the batter is out and the play is dead.

If it happens unintentionally (like the batter drops the bat to run and the ball rolls into the bat), and the ball stays fair, the ball is live and in play. If the ball rolls foul, then it's foul.

Originally Posted by philliesfan

This is more of a "What would be the rule if this happened". I am sure there is a current rule in place but I don't know what it is.

A batter has 1 strike on him. He fouls the next pitch. The catcher runs 20 feet back looking for the ball in the air but can't locate it because the ball was fouled straight up in the air. The batter sees it coming down to home plate and takes another swing and hits the ball into left field. Is this is hit? What if he swung and missed, is that strike three? Is it interference?

Would be interested to hear the ruling

Thanks,
Robert

[tschock]

Originally Posted by philliesfan

This is more of a "What would be the rule if this happened". I am sure there is a current rule in place but I don't know what it is.

A batter has 1 strike on him. He fouls the next pitch. The catcher runs 20 feet back looking for the ball in the air but can't locate it because the ball was fouled straight up in the air. The batter sees it coming down to home plate and takes another swing and hits the ball into left field. Is this is hit? What if he swung and missed, is that strike three? Is it interference?

Would be interested to hear the ruling

Thanks,
Robert

What I would rule (not referencing any playbook) is a dead ball, similar if a batter fouled off the ball and it hit himself. Only Bugs Bunny can pitch 3 strikes with a single throw. All this assuming that the catcher didn't have a chance at the catch, which if so, would then be batter interference and the batter would be out (interference being a judgement call).

[philliesfan]

Bric-a Brac-a Firecracker
Sis-boom-Bah
Bugs Bunny Bugs Bunny
Rah Rah Rah

Bric-a Brac-a Firecracker
Sis-boom-Bah
Bugs Bunny Bugs Bunny
Rah Rah Rah

Repeat several times faster each time..........