ERA question when error in inning

[Butch7999]

We stand fully ready to be corrected, but whether or not the infield is pulled in, or shifted left or right, or whatever, has nothing to do with the issue.
The only salient point is that when crediting runs as earned or unearned, the official scorer recreates the inning without the error(s).
With the error removed, the runner on 3rd was either thrown out at 2nd attempting to steal, or he stole safely but advanced no farther than 2nd.
If he was thrown out at 2nd, the single occurs with two out and the bases empty, and the next batter strikes out, ending the inning scoreless.
If he stole 2nd safely, the scorer can't assume he would have advanced by more bases than the hit, so you'd have runners at 1st and 3rd with one out.
The next two batters both strike out, again ending the inning scoreless.
The run scores only by dint of the throwing error allowing him to have moved to 3rd, thus, it's unearned.

But maybe we're wrong. Where are the official scorers on board who can provide an official ruling?