When is a set truly completed?

[Robextend]

This might be a silly question, but when do you consider a set truly completed? Bear in mind that this would not be for re-selling or flipping purposes...strictly collecting. Take this example:

I eventually would like to complete a Master T206 HOF set (sans Wagner/Plank) as well as a Tolstoi back set.

If I have a HOFer with a Tolstoi back, would you guys consider that killing two birds with one stone, or do you feel like one collecting goal has nothing to do with the other? I have gone back and forth on this and I am not sure which angle I should take. Any thoughts are appreciated.

Thanks - Rob

[jb217676]

I would want one card for each set. Using your example, I would have two versions of the same card (one with a Tolstoi back, one with a Piedmont back). I would find it too confusing sharing cards between sets.

[barrysloate]

In the above example if the Piedmont were a higher grade than the Tolstoi, I would keep them both. But if the Tolstoi were high grade, that alone would suffice. That's how I would do it.

[bijoem]

when the umpire says it is perfectly completed, it is perfectly completed.

[Matt]

Your setting the subjective set definitions (master T206 HOF set w/o Plank/Wagner) so it's entirely your call when you decide you are done.

[kcohen]

Originally Posted by Matt

Your setting the subjective set definitions (master T206 HOF set w/o Plank/Wagner) so it's entirely your call when you decide you are done.

Yes, it's subjective in my opinion, in accordance with what gives you the satisfaction of completion. However, for what it's worth, our old friend Joe considered the notion of a complete T206 set sans the big 4 as heresy - and I'm sure he would have posted such in his inimitable way.