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#1
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Posted By: davidcycleback
Do buyers who complain about being overcharged on stated shipping ever PayPal the seller money when they're undercharged (i.e., buyer paid the stated $5 for shipping and sees on the received package the seller paid $7.50 for shipping?)? Is this a case where someone's problem is not with disparities between cost and charge, but with disparities between cost and charge that are perceived to not benefit them personally? If the difference is perceived to favor someone else (the seller), that's judged as a problem and unfair. If the cost/charge difference benefits the buyer, that's not a problem and, in fact, is often not considered unfair. |
#2
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Posted By: Steve Murray
No? |
#3
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Posted By: steve yawitz
I don't think I've ever sent extra money to a seller when I've been undercharged on shipping. But I also don't see it as a big deal when I occasionally shortchange myself when stating shipping costs. |
#4
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Posted By: Elliot
David leads Steve 8-7 in edits. Come on Steve, make a come from behind charge. |
#5
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Posted By: Dan Bretta
No. |
#6
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Posted By: Gilbert Maines
No, Yes, True. |
#7
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Posted By: Paul S
You guys are opening yourself up for a big lawsuit with all this monkey business. |
#8
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Posted By: Richard
I once bought something from Max that cost $22 for him to ship to me. I paid $20 dlvd for the item. I am not looking for Max to help me manage my finances. I do owe him a drink though! |
#9
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Posted By: Paul S
How can Elliot buy something from you if you received no money? Just curious. |
#10
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Posted By: bcornell
How can Elliot buy something from you if you received no money? |
#11
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Posted By: Max Weder
This thread is making my brain hurt, even with the current f/x rate. |
#12
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Posted By: Elliot
All true Richard, but you didn't bring it across the border, i had to smuggle it the final distance. |
#13
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Posted By: Paul S
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