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#1
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Posted By: Josh
We're having a debate in the auction office... |
#2
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Posted By: andy becker
i believe the batter (in both cases) who finished the at-bat is given the credit for the strikeout or walk. |
#3
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Posted By: barrysloate
There were two strikes on the pitcher, only one on the replacement. Does two trump one? |
#4
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Posted By: john/z28jd
I believe Andy is right.I was at a minor league game where a guy actually got thrown out of a 2-1 game in the bottom of the 9th with 2 outs and a 3-2 count,with runners on base.Some poor PHer had to come off the bench right into the situation most kids pretend about when they play.He ended up striking out swinging on the next pitch and it was credited to the batter who got thrown out for arguing a strike call |
#5
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Posted By: Glenn
So entering the game in that situation, does he only get an official at-bat if he gets a hit? 1-for-1 if he gets a hit, 0-for-0 if he doesn't? I just thought of a way to get Sammy Sosa's average up to .400. |
#6
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Posted By: john/z28jd
No Glen,if he flies out or grounds out its credited to the PHer,only a strikeout or walk wouldnt be credited to the PHer |
#7
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Posted By: Glenn
That makes more sense. |
#8
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Posted By: Jay Miller
If a player pinch hits for a batter who already has two strikes on him and then strikes out the strikeout is credited to the first batter. If the first batter had only one strike on him the strikeout is credited to the pinch hitter. A pinch hitter who enters the game and walks, regardless of the prior count, is credited with the walk. |
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