Posted By:
davidcyclebackThe answer is if the seller was unsure if it was reprint or $100,000+ real, he
would have sent it in to PSA (or SGC). In fact, if he was certain it was
$100,000 real it would be in a PSA (or SGC) holder. Looking at it reasonably,
it can be deduced that either he sent the card in to a grader and it was rejected
or he never sent it in as he knew (and knows) it is a reprint. My guess would be
the latter, as, as already noted, the reprints are a different size than the originals
and thus easy to identify. Duly note that none of the above scenarios involve the seller
at sale time being unsure of what is the card (whether original or reprint) and give reason
for including a '?' in the title. In other words, each scenario involves the seller
knowing what he has for sale at auction time (original or reprint) and being able to
say what he has for sale. In other other words, the seller knows what he has for sale
and he isn't telling reprint tales and putting ?'s in the title because he knows
it's original.
Reminds me of the '1952 Topps Mantle' seller who was offering the card ungraded
for what was about a $10,000 discount because, according to him, he didn't want
to bother paying the PSA grading fee. For a $10,000 return, Carlos Helu (richest
man in the world) would bother to pay the PSA grading fee.
Often times you can identify fakes and reprints without having to even look
at the pictures.