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Posted By: davidcycleback

Do buyers who complain about being overcharged on stated shipping ever PayPal the seller money when they're undercharged (i.e., buyer paid the stated $5 for shipping and sees on the received package the seller paid $7.50 for shipping?)? Is this a case where someone's problem is not with disparities between cost and charge, but with disparities between cost and charge that are perceived to not benefit them personally? If the difference is perceived to favor someone else (the seller), that's judged as a problem and unfair. If the cost/charge difference benefits the buyer, that's not a problem and, in fact, is often not considered unfair.