Posted By:
Todd SchultzI disagree also. Moreover, since it seems the prevailing view is that soaking etc. is both OK and widely done, then why is it rarely, i.e. never disclosed? Hell, if the price realized is going to be the same with or without disclosure, then why not tell it like it is? Methinks it's because it does affect the price and the number of bidders, and as Jim pointed out, a healthy percentage of people here would not buy it.