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Old 09-27-2005, 12:53 AM
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Default hypothetical question: sets vs singles in an auction

Posted By: cmoking

I think it is clear that in the past, sets almost always sold for less than the sum of the parts. However, in recent years, there are signs that this is changing (I think).

In this past calendar year, I have seen a few 1933 and 1934 complete Goudey sets sell for equal to greater than their break-up value through the big auction houses. I think there were several T206 near-sets that sold too....how have those finished up in prices as a near-set relative to the break-up value? If they were close or greater than their break-up value, then they would be in line with what I saw in the Goudeys. If they are on the cheap side, then maybe it is the Goudey sets that are the exception rather than the rule.

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