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Posted By: identify7

John & Jay:

Two data points do not prove a theory. While the bell curve relationship for early 20th century players compared to those of today is a logical progression; for the theory to have merit, it has to be applicable to the 19th century as well.

Is it? An initial glance at the players involved appears to indicate that in some cases (single season hitting stats, for example) the theory is borne out. But I am not sure that this is the case for career stats applied to hitters and pitchers.

Again, this is currently only a question. I have not yet looked at the actual data. But the disparity between the highest career 19th century batter and the lowest may be less than that in the 20th century.