[Archive]

Posted By: Max Weder

David

To show my disconnect with modern baseball, I had immediately forgotten where Game 4 was played. I don't think the Red Sox would thus have any claim to the ball, as prior to Doug's catch, it either belonged to St. Louis or to MLB. I don't think the visiting team ever buys the baseballs. The question is whether the "common law of baseball" enables ownership of such a ball to be transferred to Doug.

I found an interesting article (marked "draft") from a University of Tulsa law professor, dealing with ownership of baseballs, written around the controversery surrounding the Bonds home run ball.

Here's the link http://www.lookstein.org/links/homerun.htm



Max