Posted By:
MWJulie –-
That’s not correct.
"Middle English" is a term that refers to language. "Elizabethan" is a word that is applied to an entire time period marked by the reign of Elizabeth I in England. To characterize words as "Elizabethan" would be nonsensical since "Elizabethan" is merely a chronological reference and does not describe any special characteristic of the writing during its age.
The term "Middle English" is a direct reference to language and specifically, word origins or etymologies. Obviously, Shakespeare included a great deal of Middle English words and usages in his plays. The time period he wrote in was "Elizabethan" but the words he used were largely that of "Middle English."
After Middle English comes Modern English and to apply this term (Modern English) to Shakespeare would not be very accurate. Also, Chaucer’s work was characterized by "Central Middle English" usages, not "Early Middle English" and not "Late Middle English." To use his name to frame the entire Middle English language would again not be accurate.