I have laid out my reasons for why it is my opinion that the seller here was making an offer to sell and not an invitation to treat (I.e. invitation to enter negotiations that could lead to a future sale). I will let the reader decide which position is correct, but in my mind, it is clear that the seller was making an offer that could be accepted by anyone who simply said “I will take it,” or something to that effect.
So the seller was making an offer here and not an invitation to treat. We do not need to read any cases from England to know that.
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