I don't know, Adam. Example. As we know, under the statute of frauds, I can't enforce a contract for the sale of goods over $500 (never mind the exceptions, irrelevant to the point) without a writing signed by the other party. So under the law, the other party can breach with impunity if he knows there is no such writing. But wouldn't you say it's still unethical to breach the contract, or at least that there's a substantial consensus that would say it is? Perhaps you would not.
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Last edited by Peter_Spaeth; 01-15-2018 at 08:55 PM.
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