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Maybe Tom Brady was in on it...
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One huge difference in say Leland's just cancelling the sale is that if this item was sold for say $5K-$10K, or even a bit more, the legal fees potentially involved could easily end up being way more than what the item is even worth. So not at all then worth pursuing by either side really. But for an item selling for over $500K, that's a whole different story. And without specific wording in the consignment agreement specifically allowing an AH to unilaterally make such a decision on the consigner's behalf, I would think the AH has a duty to go after the auction winner to complete the sale and pay the full price they agreed to pay.
Technically Leland's made no false statements in their auction description, and even at this moment, that football is still the final one Brady has thrown for a TD pass in his career, retired or unretired. |
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than one occasion. The long term value of this card and all cards involving Mr. Tatis may be contingent upon future accidents beyond the control of the auction house.” |
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I don’t see how any of this varies significantly from paying big bucks for a 1/1 card, only to find out 6 Months later that 7 others have suddenly
appeared at the same grade (one of those common farmhouse attic finds) and I paid a ridiculous amount for what is now a 1 of 8. |
Leland’s owes the consignor their share of the sale if the top bidder follows through on their bid and pays for the item. No more, no less.
I don’t think it’s as complicated as you guys are making it out to be. I mean, you can make it as complicated as you want, and hire Alan Dershowitz to take it all the way to The Supreme Court if you want to throw a lot of money (and time) away. Make an example of a customer who obviously is a victim of dumb circumstance in order to make some ridiculous point or hold them to some legal technicality. It’s silly. It’s a free football that a dumb jock threw into the stands. BTW, I’m not the high bidder on this item. Just want to make sure I’m being transparent in my argument. 😂 I’d have to explain to my wife why I just sold our house, everything in it, both our cars and a good part of our retirement fund, for a $40,000 football. I’m not normally this sympathetic to people who have enough money to throw around on baubles like this. ;) |
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Would it not matter if Brady had officially signed his NFL retirement papers at all? Or if they had even been processed?
If they were signed and processed would that not signal his retirement? And this new season be considered a second career in the eyes of the court? Couldn't either party state that as to Brady's true intentions as a fact not available at the time of sale? Dunno myself if any of this really matters just random thoughts as I was reading the thread. |
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So be completely honest with yourself. Which type of bidder do you really think is most likely bidding on items like these with maybe some lingering doubts as to their significance and value, especially in cases where they're willing to bid $500K? And then answer me why they should be able to back out of such a deal, with virtually none of the risk on them? If this deal does end up going south for the consigner, I sincerely hope that Brady ends up changing his mind and re-retiring, or at least ends up never throwing another NFL TD again, for whatever reason. And then the consigner puts the same football back up for auction, but now gets 2X, 3X, 4X what he was originally supposed to get for it in this Leland's auction. But of course this is all just speculation at this point. No one has heard what the auction winner intends to do yet, have they? Until then, this is all moot. |
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All NFL quarterbacks who throw a TD in an NFL game are not retired. But not all NFL quarterbacks who are not retired are absolutely guaranteed to throw a TD in an NFL game. Anyway, no one knows what the auction winner is going to do yet, right? We're all just wasting time and energy debating till something happens. LOL |
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When I first saw this thread I initially thought that the buyer bought it, it's his.
But I didn't post one of my cynical, heartless responses. I thought more about it, and decided that Brady should probably honor the bid if the buyer didn't want to follow through with it. Now who here knows Tom or his agent well enough to suggest this to him. But that's not now how I have decided what should happen. Think about it. Is Tom Brady the first professional athlete who retired and then returned? Absolutely not. Did the auction house guarantee that Brady would stay retired? NO! The buyer bought that ball, he should honor his bid. I understand the ball may well not be the last touchdown pass of the career ball; but it wasn't a conditional bid / purchase. The high bidder should pay, and everyone should learn from it. (Being a Colts fan since about 1965, give or take a year, I kinda liked the deflated comment. And being a Colts fan, who the hell would want a Tom Brady anything???) |
Judge Frank, are you just opining on what you think the right thing to do here is, or what the result would be if (hypothetically) the buyer didn't pay and Leland's sued? Because if the latter, as I posted,
Closely related to impossibility, frustration of purpose applies when a change in circumstances makes one party’s contract performance worthless to the other party. See Restatement (Second) of Contracts § 265. The defense commonly contains three elements: 1. the party’s principal purpose in making the contract is frustrated; 2. an event occurred whose non-occurrence was a basic assumption underlying the contract; and, 3. the party invoking the defense was not at fault. All three elements are met, no? If you think not, would be interested in your reasoning. |
The Coronation Cases... we had that in a Contracts case. A coronation in England didn't happen as scheduled because one of the royals was gravely ill. The courts ruled against the landlords or lettors of the flats along the coronation route refund money to the renters. That's not what happened here. The frustration of purpose doesn't apply.
No one seems concerned about the seller / consignor. Is the auction house going to honor the bid, buy the ball themselves, and pay the consignor what he's due? The auction house shouldn't just unilaterally say ok, we aren't going through with this sale, seller, catch, here's your ball back. The buyer bought the ball, he should pay for it. |
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Certainly in the coronation cases the buyer knew or should have known there was a possibility the event would be cancelled, but that did not stop the British court from excusing him from performing. |
Not a Brady fan, hope he falls on his face . He and Rodgers are publicity fans looking out for them selves.
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The buyer's purpose isn't frustrated, he can pay for the ball and have it. His frustration is in not considering that Brady could return. Which he hasn't done yet. That won't happen, if at all, until this fall. I think the auction house will want to be paid before the season starts.
Peter, maybe you're blurring things. The buyer bid on this last touchdown ball expecting it to be the last touchdown. That won't be known for certainty for possibly yearsj. (Brady could get hurt in a preseason game, and he might not return to play until the 2023 season, or later!) NO event has occurred. It's just his fear of occurrence. Announcing a return doesn't devalue the ball. Neither does returning. A touchdown pass would. The auction house and the buyer don't have any contract about Brady not returning as a player, that's not implied. (I don't know that, I've not gone to the auction's site to read their terms and conditions... I just know I've never read anything in any of those terms that had anything about a player's return to the profession.) As to #3, the buyer isn't at fault. Now turn all of the around and you do the analysis for the seller. Is he at fault? Goodnight Guys. Goodnight, guys. Goodnight, guys. I am smiling at thinking of Dizzy Dean, who left the broadcast booth near the end of the 1947 season to pitch for the St. Louis Browns. He had been complaining about the team's lack of pitching on the air, saying he could do better. Dean suited up in 1947, years after retiring. He started the game, went 4 innings, pitched well, and he got a hit. I think the buyer, by bidding, has won that lot and will need to pay soon... the auction house and the seller won't wait 6 months uless they all three do that in an effort to settle the mess. Buyer's gotta pay. This potentially would be a half mil case of buyer's remorse. |
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As to your other point, the fact that the ball is probably now virtually worthless (seriously, what are the chances realistically Brady won't throw another TD, VERY slim) to me does show his purpose has been frustrated. I suppose I wouldn't be against holding the case in abeyance until that happens, if it would make anyone feel better. As always, enjoy your perspective. |
Let's face it, by the time a judge would be ruling on any contract claim surrounding this auction, it will be known one way or the other whether this was indeed the final touchdown pass of Brady's career. It if is not, then the buyer did not get what he bargained for, nor what was expressly represented in the auction. All parties, if answering truthfully, reasonably assumed Tom Brady was retired from the NFL and that he would not be credited with any future touchdowns in the NFL. There were no disclaimers that Tom Brady might return in the future and diminish the historical significance of the item. It is what makes the ball historic and why the ball went for over $500K. Now, maybe there were bidders that didn't bid because they thought Brady might return to the NFL, but I bet the buyer would declare under oath he believed, as Leland had represented, Tom Brady was permanently retired and that fact was material to his bid. And, it would be hard to rebut, because NOBODY who reasonably believed there was a likelihood that Brady would return would have bid $500K on that ball.
It boils down to this: Did all parties to the transaction believe what was being sold was the "historic" final touchdown football at the time the contract was formed? Yes. Is the football, in fact, the "historic" final touchdown football (assuming for the sake of argument he eventually throws another touchdown)? No. So, there was no meeting of the minds as to the what was being purchased, and no contract was formed. I will use a recent example in the sportscard world: A guy spends $3.1 Million for an unopened case of Pokemon cards. The general public believes the case is authentic and unopened (though there were a few skeptics). The buyer, seller and auction house all enter into the contract believing the case is an unopened case of Pokemon cards. In fact, the case is later opened, and the box is now what all parties believed it to be, as it did not contain Pokemon cards, rather it was full of GI Joe cards. Thus, even though the box that was bid on was the exact box delivered to the buyer, it was not what the parties understood and represented it to be. The collecting public seemed to uniformly agree that the buyer did not get what was contracted for and was entitled to his money back. Yet here, though it is undisputed the buyer did not get what he bargained for, the jury seems pretty split on whether he should be stuck paying for something different then what he contracted for. |
I too don’t really understand why so many people want to stick the buyer with this. Or how it’s somehow the buyer‘s fault for not doing enough due diligence on the status of Bradys state of mind. The seller is, after all, the one in this business. If it cannot deliver what is promised, even if through no fault of its own, I don’t see why the buyer has to pay for that. And it seems to me there are a couple of possible legal grounds for the buyer to avoid payment. I personally am more attracted to the frustration of purpose, but I could also argue it as others have posted as a formation issue. Either way, I don’t see why, again, people are so eager to stick the buyer.
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My last point put another way. As between innocents It seems to me the loss should fall on the seller who is unable to deliver what was supposed to be the purchased item. And all technical wordsmithing aside, the seller cannot deliver the promised item.
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Just for the hell of it, suppose the case went forward and the buyer admitted the price he was willing to pay reflected his assessment of and adjustment for the possibility that Brady would not stay retired. What then? Does that mean he actually did get what he bargained for? Does the fact that this was an auction where the bidders set the price make it different from the coronation cases?
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I'm looking at this as a discussion of the contract law in place, and as to whether or not the auction winner has the ability to get out of paying for this football. Now that Brady has changed his mind about retiring, so that it now seems chances are he will throw another TD pass in his career, the perceived value dropped in the eyes of most people. At least temporarily till Brady's status as retired or not is finally settled. For all we know, this could be a calculated ploy on his part to get himself a better deal somewhere, doing who knows what, and he actually never intended to play anymore after all. I believe this would be subject to state, not any federal law, and be based on laws in the state that Leland's is headquartered in and primarily operates out of. I'm also guessing that it stipulates which state's laws the auction is covered by in the auction rules/terms of use/whatever you want to call it that the auction winner had to affirm and agree to before they are allowed to bid in the auction. Now I did not go back and read Leland's auction rules/terms, but am pretty confident if I did that it will state something to the effect that by bidding in a Leland's auction you are entering into a binding contract to purchase an item once you are determined to be the winning bidder. The main question in this case then will be, when does the liability for changes in the circumstances of this football legally switch from the consigner to the buyer. I honestly don't know the specific and exact state laws applicable in this instance, so can't say for sure if ownership and liability transfer in this case is deemed to take effect immediately when the auction ended and the high bidder was determined and declared. Or maybe the transfer doesn't take effect and is considered binding till the winner bidder is officially notified and invoiced. And then again, maybe the transfer doesn't take effect till the invoice is paid and the football is delivered to the auction winner. In any event, at the time of the auction, through its end, all of the statements and description of the football's status were true and accurate. And still are, technically and factually, until Brady actually throws another TD. Which there is no guarantee he ever will, just a great possibility if he goes through on un-retiring and plays some more after all. I'm aware of the issues and questions brought up about the change of circumstances arising from Brady's latest announcement, but look more to when the ownership and liability transfer of the football takes effect under the applicable state laws to determine an answer. And without knowing if there is any specific rule or measure the applicable state's contract laws look at in a case like this, we're all just blindly guessing at this point. And for me, I'm guessing the end of the auction signals the commencement of the binding contract, and in the absence of fraud, deceit, or intentional withholding or misrepresentation of pertinent information regarding the property being sold, by the owner or their agent/representative, if I were on the jury for this case I'd vote that the auction winner had to pay up, they bought it. What say you? :) |
Interesting situation, as it is his last touchdown pass as of now. It also may prove to be his last touchdown pass.
One thing is athletes un-retire often: Brett Favre, Lance Armstrong, Michael Jordan, Roger Clemens, George Foreman, Ryne Sandburg, Mario Lemieux, Pele. If Leland's had worded the auction differently they would be off the hook. One rule of vintage card collecting: If a card as sold as unique, a second will be discovered. |
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After wading through the legal discussions, this is the best quote on here. I spewed my drink reading this. How many people have retired from "normal jobs" and find the transition hard? I retired about a year ago, and my wife sure seems to be around a lot more. |
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Great analysis, but there's one major difference/flaw I see in comparing this to the Pokemon card example. It turned out that at no time was the case of G.i. Joe cards ever what it was advertised to be, a case of Pokemon cards. In regards to the Brady TD football though, up till and through the end of the auction, it was exactly what it was advertised and believed to be, by all parties involved. And to me, that is an absolutely huge difference. And as I'd said in an earlier post, that to me makes this a simple question, as of when is it determined by the applicable court that the ownership and liability for the football transfers from the seller to the auction winner? Think about this, what if Brady did retire........for one year, and then came back to play and throw more touchdowns. By then the auction winner would have paid for this supposed last career TD football, and had then owned it for over a year. Now the value would severely drop again, just as it supposedly did when Brady announced he was un-retiring this past week. And once again, the auction description would turn out not to be right. So now are we saying the auction winner could still go back and sue to have the auction overturned and get their $500K back, even though it is over a year the auction winner has owned it? I would certainly and sincerely think and hope not. So to me, this leads right back to the only question that begs to be answered and actually matters in this entire case. When does the state that has jurisdiction over this auction sale officially recognize the transfer of ownership, and the liability of such ownership, for this football? Get the answer to that question and then you'll know who should win if this case ever does end up going to court. |
One thing for consideration. At the time of the sale, both the seller and the buyer thought it was the last touchdown pass. Possibly every bidder and watcher thought it was. And it is not a case where the seller lied or hid information. Both the seller and the buyer (and all the bidders) had the same information.
Sellers should be expected to use critical thinking and logic. However, one thing sellers should be expected to be be able to perfectly predict the future. It's also worth noting that Tom Brady did announce his retirement on February 1. <iframe width="560" height="315" src="https://www.youtube.com/embed/fwAXY8HYIO8" title="YouTube video player" frameborder="0" allow="accelerometer; autoplay; clipboard-write; encrypted-media; gyroscope; picture-in-picture" allowfullscreen></iframe> |
This ball may reach the infamy level of the Banksy painting that started shredding the moment the winning bid was announced.
The winner of that painting decided to keep it and now it's worth far more than it was at the time of the auction because of the story. |
The big word thrown around in every auction, and oft mocked here, is "extant". Which means surviving or still in existence. If someone represents that this is the highest graded copy extant, or the oldest signed contract extant, and a better one one if discovered tomorrow, have they made a misrepresentation? I don't think so. Not fraud, and I don't even seeing it possibly constitute negligence.
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Assuming he throws another TD, the copy was false when it was written. It's just that no one knew that at the time. (It didn't say "last TD pass so far".)
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Focusing on questions of "fraud" or "negligence" are misplaced. Those are typically used in the context of a tort. Contracts is a completely different animal and treated differently. You can have two parties acting reasonably, competently and honestly and the result can be that no contract was formed.
So, it comes down to what were the parties contracting for? Leland will argue that the contract was for a football. It described the football with enough specificity for all parties to know what it was and where it came from. Any subsequent facts that could impact the value of that football are irrelevant, as they simply have to deliver the football pictured and described in their listing. The argument will continue that the bidder knew exactly what he was bidding on, and will get exactly what he bid on. What he underestimated was the possibility that a subsequent event could diminish the value of his purchase, but that is a common risk of buying a collectable. The auction buyer will argue that it was not just buying the football described in the auction. It was buying the express representation of the seller that the item it was buying was the "historic final touchdown of Tom Brady's career." Leland said it was the "last ball," and the price reflected it was the "last ball." Now, circumstances prevent the "last ball," as represented, from being delivered. Thus, what was specifically agreed to does not exist and no contract exists. On this board, there definitely seems to be a split. My sense is a judge will side with the buyer. For the AH to prevail, the judge would need to accept that it was reasonable for the parties to anticipate a reasonable likelihood a 45 year old retired football player would un-retire and return to the NFL. While there have been instances of players who retired fairly young and returned to various professional leagues, the number of 45 year-old athletes who have retired and come back to the NFL as a player prior to March 10, 2022 might very well be zero. Based on this fact, was it reasonable for the contracting parties to operate with the understanding Tom Brady was and would remain retired? I believe a judge would say yes. If that was the operating belief of all parties and that belief was the underlying basis for their agreement, and that belief was ultimately wrong, then I don't think there was an enforceable agreement entered into between the parties. |
I guess that's the drawback of being a tort lawyer for 35 years. Also explains my B- in Contracts as a 1L.
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Funny timing on this whole mess. Just a coincidence, I suppose.
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The only winner in all of this is the 1st underbidder.
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"On our 30th wedding anniversary we celebrated in Hawaii. On our 60th wedding anniversary I returned to Hawaii to pick her up." |
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Also, the third sentence of your fourth paragraph, didn't you mean to say a judge would have to find it "unreasonable", not "reasonable", to expect a 45-year-old quarterback to suddenly un-retire if the AH/seller were to have a chance to prevail? That way it isn't as easy to argue the AH description was misleading and inaccurate, and therefore the buyer should be let off the hook for completing the transaction they entered into, via what I'm guessing will otherwise be considered a binding contract under applicable state laws. Once again, I think the issue would ultimately come down to when, under the applicable state laws, is the auction/sale to be considered finalized and binding/enforceable under the contract terms, and the liability and risk of the football pass to the auction winner. Also, go back to paragraph two of my Post #112, and tell me if you still think a judge would side with the buyer and allow them to get their money back in that particular case. Based on what you're saying above, you seem to feel it doesn't matter when the change in the historical significance of the football occurs. Just that if it eventually occurs the original auction description is now wrong, and therefore the auction winner should be entitled to back out of the deal. |
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That's another good one Frank. :D |
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What does that mean, "An n of 1"? Also, what judge are talking about? |
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The one I called Judge Frank in my post of course, Fank Wakefield. |
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the Next Great Soap Opera is just beginning and stay tuned for the next episode of As Brady's Ball Turns
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Schrödinger’s Pig(skin)
It is at the same time Tom Brady's last touchdown ball and NOT his last touchdown ball. |
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Given how much Brady loves the game and the fact that he said it was a family decision, etc I really think the bidders on this one may have overplayed their hands. In a time in our industry where money seems to be endless, there are lots of guys who might not be as prudent as they should be in order to make sure they are the one to win the item. |
There is a binding contract between the buyer and seller. the fact that an event happend "after" the contract was entered into does not change the terms. Buyer has to pay. If he backs out, I would sue him for the amount he agreed upon.
But I practice criminal defense and not this stuff so what do I know? Here's another question. What if the role was reversed? What if Brady had announced his retirement the next day? The value of the ball would increase. Should the buyer have to then pay more to the auction house? |
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If the buyer purchased “Brady’s final TD ball” and another ball becomes that final TD ball, hadn’t the buyer simply prepaid for the purchase of whatever ball becomes the final one, or is he tied to this specific ball? Which rules, the item or the description of the item?
Here’s another angle - if I buy a 3000th hit ball, and Elias credits the player with a previously unknown hit, do I now have 3001? |
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So what happens if they go to court and the auction winner prevails and gets out of paying for the football, and then the very next day Brady re-retires, and this time it is permanent. Are you suggesting the seller can now countersue and force the auction winner to buy the football for their winning auction bid after all? Do you see the problem with your logic here? |
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Also, relax on the you’re wrong proclamations. As a head banging attorney I can tell you that’s there really good arguments on both sides here. It’s about choosing which one you think is right and making the best argument you can for it. The outcome here is far from certain despite your thinking it is. |
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auction sells a ticket stub from feller’s opening day no hitter. correctly markets that no-hitter as the ONLY one to happen on opening day. days after the auction ends, a no-hitter gets thrown on opening day. that sale gets voided too?
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but the buyer is not receiving what he paid for, which is an argument i have read often about the brady ball.
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They did not make that promise. Literally or otherwise. They are actually able to deliver the exact goods offered. |
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It’s not going to be his last career td which is what they said in the description. |
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I don't have a problem with "last".
As of right now, the last TD Tom Brady threw is well documented. And until he throws another one that ball is 100% the last TD pass of his career. I think "final" is a little more problematic. Interestingly Lelands also put this in their write up: Unlike other items used in the commission of a famous last event, this ball has dual significance because it was also used to establish Tom Brady’s record of 86 career playoff touchdowns. To put that number in its proper perspective, the player in second place, Joe Montana, has a total of 45. Like most of Brady’s passing records, it is a mark that will almost certainly stand the test of time So the seller is saying this has significance for two reasons. |
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As for the buyer deciding not to pay, and then having their attorney drag things out till after Brady does come back and hopefully throws a TD, that is exactly what I would expect many people to do, were they the auction winner. I fully understand the games that can be played, and the arguments that can be made by attorneys on both sides. I'm also aware that regardless of what was said in the description, there is no court I can ever see holding a seller responsible forever, should circumstances change much later after the fact. Go back to my example in paragraph two of Post #112, and tell me if you truly think the buyer could actually have a chance to prevail and overturn the purchase more than a year after having bought the football. Oh, I'm sure there's at least an attorney or two that would take that case and make some great arguments, and of course get themselves a payday. (As already pointed out in this thread, the only guaranteed winners in this case would likely be the attorneys.) But I don't see any jury where the jurors have at least half a brain, falling for that kind of crap. To me this case is very simple. When, under the laws of the state having jurisdiction over this case, does the agreement become enforceable and the potential risks and liabilities associated with ownership of this football pass from the seller to the auction winning. I do not know the specific state laws Leland's auctions are carried out under, nor bothered to look up Leland's specific auction terms all bidders must agree to. I would suspect Leland's auction rules stipulate the sales transaction becomes enforceable upon the end of the auction. and determination of the winner. I would also suspect Leland's has some banging attorneys of their own, who would not have drawn up auction rules and sales contract terms that go directly counter to the state laws covering their auction sales. So to me it is pretty straightforward. Did this football technically become the buyer's property, where the risk of loss is now on the buyer, at the moment the auction ended, or at some other time? Like when the buyer actually pays the invoice, or maybe when they receive and take delivery of the football in question. My guess it is when the auction ended, and that the applicable state laws will be consistent with that. You can talk about attorney arguments on both sides all you like, but if this case were to go to court it would likely be decided by a jury. So I'm looking at this from how an intelligent, common sense adult serving as a juror would look at this. Not at how many different arguments one or the other side's attorneys can come up with. Most intelligent people know that in any legal proceeding it is more likely than not that attorneys for at least one side, if not both sides, are going to be spewing out a lot of BS to try to win a case like this. I've been an expert witness, and consulted with different attorneys, enough times over the years to have a fair understanding of how this crap all works, and seen it in action. If it turns out the auction rules and applicable state laws do support the sale being valid and enforceable on the buyer immediately after the auction ends, but the auction winner refuses to pay so they and their attorney can delay the case till Brady does get a chance to throw another TD so they can now use that argument to negate the auction sale, I really would love to see Brady finally retire before ever playing again, or sadly get some injury forcing him to quit, after all. Whatever, it will 100% confirm that football was the last ever thrown by Brady for an NFL TD, and the AH/seller can immediately cancel the winning bidder's bid and negate the sale for non-payment. And then I would hope they could sue the bastard and their attorney for all the legal costs and other expenses they had to incur, as well as lost revenue for the buyer's commission, because of what the auction winner tried to pull. And for even more justice, I'd hope the seller could re-auction off the football and see it go for multiples of what it originally sold for. I guess we'll just have to wait and see where this goes next. Will be interesting, that is for sure. |
LOLOL. What you call spewing BS I would call fulfilling my ethical DUTY to represent my client to the full extent permitted by law. From the ABA:
A lawyer should pursue a matter on behalf of a client despite opposition, obstruction or personal inconvenience to the lawyer, and take whatever lawful and ethical measures are required to vindicate a client's cause or endeavor. A lawyer must also act with commitment and dedication to the interests of the client and with zeal in advocacy upon the client's behalf. |
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