Quote:
Originally Posted by tschock
Yes and no. You can't penalize a guy because another guy didn't hit the ball to him. But in the aggregate, it is VERY LIKELY that as many balls were hit in the same area, making it statistically similar. And that's the comparison. A 20% difference is pretty significant.
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That assumption may or may not be true. If it is, then range factor should be the be all and end all, no? But obviously people think it isn't because newer metrics keep getting invented.
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