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Old 05-22-2014, 09:27 AM
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frankbmd frankbmd is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy View Post
It depends on how the previous transaction occured. If the previous seller approached the buyer (who is now the seller) and said, "I have this card and I want $20 for it" and the the buyer purchased if for that amount, that goes back to what I've been saying over and over - it's a seller's responsibility to do their own homework to know what they're selling and the value. There is nothing to "correct."

Now a question for you. If you do believe the buyer has an obligation to go back and "correct" the earlier transaction, how far back should the correction go? Should that person go back and correct the person he purchased it from and so on and so on? How far back do we go to make it right in your book?
I wouldn't go farther back than 1909, but at some point you are going to encounter a dead seller. Then do we have to bring his heirs into the discussion. This could get very complicated.

"Reductio ad absurdum" I maintain is a valid argument.
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