It seems logical that an offer of asking price would be "I'll take it." PM sent might mean registering interest, asking for more detail, or making an offer under asking. All of those are reasonable assumptions, especially the one about an offer under asking. Am I to assume a PM'd offer at or over asking?
Then to clear matters up, a seller on the ball usually comments, "PMs replied to" to make clear the item is still for sale.
Quote:
Originally Posted by vintagetoppsguy
How do you determine the amount of the offer by only "PM sent"? Seriously, please explain.
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