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Posted By: davidcycleback

Some more food for thought

One will often hear bidders complain that a overcharging seller is "profiting from shipping charges." If one is to use this logic, aren't these same bidders who knowingly accept shipping undercharges likewise "profiting from shipping charges"-- in particular when they are buying to resell?

Again, my rhetorical question is, if these buyers beleive it wrong to 'profit' from shipping charges, should we assume that they are actively reibursing all the sellers where the shipping was undercharged?