Posted By:
marty"Ask Adam. Ask Bob. Because it is illegal. Prima facia. To ask such a question, even rhetorically, at a minimum demonstrates a disconnect regarding the auction process. At worst case, an ethics problem."
Making an agreement not to bid openly for an item is ALSO illeagal. This is a form of bid rigging.
"Bid rigging also takes many forms, but bid-rigging conspiracies usually fall into one or more of the following categories:
Bid Suppression: In bid suppression schemes, one or more competitors who otherwise would be expected to bid, or who have previously bid, agree to refrain from bidding or withdraw a previously submitted bid so that the designated winning competitor's bid will be accepted."
This is taken directly from
LINK
Bid Suppression is just as illegal as shilling.