My interpretation of the Lanham Act as to its relevance is:
(a) Civil action
(1)Any person who, on
or in connection with any goods or services, or any container for goods, uses in commerce any word, term, name, symbol, or device,
or any combination thereof, or any false designation of origin,
false or misleading description of fact, or false or misleading representation of fact, which—
(B)
in commercial advertising or promotion, misrepresents the nature,
characteristics, qualities, or geographic origin of his or her
or another person’s goods, services, or commercial activities,
shall be liable in a civil action by any person who believes that he or she is or is likely to be damaged by such act.
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/15/1125
I could be wrong, but I don't see being involved in the actual direct sale or having ownership of the item in question matters based on what I've highlighted in bold print.