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View Full Version : When is a set truly completed?


Robextend
06-04-2010, 09:31 AM
This might be a silly question, but when do you consider a set truly completed? Bear in mind that this would not be for re-selling or flipping purposes...strictly collecting. Take this example:

I eventually would like to complete a Master T206 HOF set (sans Wagner/Plank) as well as a Tolstoi back set.

If I have a HOFer with a Tolstoi back, would you guys consider that killing two birds with one stone, or do you feel like one collecting goal has nothing to do with the other? I have gone back and forth on this and I am not sure which angle I should take. Any thoughts are appreciated.

Thanks - Rob

jb217676
06-04-2010, 09:37 AM
I would want one card for each set. Using your example, I would have two versions of the same card (one with a Tolstoi back, one with a Piedmont back). I would find it too confusing sharing cards between sets.

barrysloate
06-04-2010, 09:45 AM
In the above example if the Piedmont were a higher grade than the Tolstoi, I would keep them both. But if the Tolstoi were high grade, that alone would suffice. That's how I would do it.

bijoem
06-04-2010, 09:48 AM
when the umpire says it is perfectly completed, it is perfectly completed.

Matt
06-04-2010, 10:04 AM
Your setting the subjective set definitions (master T206 HOF set w/o Plank/Wagner) so it's entirely your call when you decide you are done.

kcohen
06-04-2010, 10:46 AM
Your setting the subjective set definitions (master T206 HOF set w/o Plank/Wagner) so it's entirely your call when you decide you are done.

Yes, it's subjective in my opinion, in accordance with what gives you the satisfaction of completion. However, for what it's worth, our old friend Joe considered the notion of a complete T206 set sans the big 4 as heresy - and I'm sure he would have posted such in his inimitable way.

Robextend
06-04-2010, 10:51 AM
Yes, it's subjective in my opinion, in accordance with what gives you the satisfaction of completion. However, for what it's worth, our old friend Joe considered the notion of a complete T206 set sans the big 4 as heresy - and I'm sure he would have posted such in his inimitable way.

It wouldn't be complete to the hobby masses, but it would be complete in my mind :)

usernamealreadytaken
06-04-2010, 11:23 AM
I would say that if you intend to sell as "complete" you need both.

If its just for you, one card can do double (or triple, ect) duty! If collecting a Sl'ers sub-set, a Hindu sub-set and a complete set (522), my one Hindu Shag can happily fill in as needed. However, if I sell, the other two sets then fall short.

Mikehealer
06-04-2010, 11:26 AM
In your case I would say a t206 HOFer with a Tolstoi would work for both sets.

usernamealreadytaken
06-04-2010, 11:28 AM
I do not consider blank backs, Brown Old Mill, Brown Lenox, or Cobb backs as T206's (they seem to all be anomolies that were never (intended) to be mass distributed in packs, but rather are printer's scrap or test runs). However, I do consider Type 1 Coupons as such. I can happily enjoy my "complete" backs collection but would be laughed at if I tried to sell as a "complete" T206backs set. Put another way: Whatever floats your boat.

B O'Brien
06-04-2010, 11:43 AM
Good question. I set out to do a basic backs line made up of HOFers, once I got that far, I thought I should fill in as many series and factories as I could (No BL 460 or above on the tough list), once I got to that point, I figured I might as well include an basic HOF set in the mix and once I got to that point, I noticed that I was only about 15 cards short of a master HOF set. I could see that death would be the end of this set, if I did not get a better hold.

My collection would never be finished. I have a feeling that once you knock down one or the other, the two will indeed become two sets and you will be drawn to work on/finish both.

I also have to have perfectly lined up in the dishwasher and can not play Scrabble with other people because they don't put the letters in straight enough lines.

That doesn't help you out much,
Bob

JasonL
06-04-2010, 11:47 AM
It's completed when either of the following two conditions exist:
1) I lose interest and move onto another goal
or
2) I make whatever concessions to the definition of the collecting goal so as to make its completion possible.


Dude, it's whatever you WANT!!! :D


...but you can't have one single card satisfy a spot in two or more sets. Dude, that's cheating! ;)

Mark
06-04-2010, 12:18 PM
According to the strict standard, it is when I own every known copy of every card in the set. For some sets, I work with a looser standard and say that the set is complete when I have one of each front. For my favorite sets, the fronts must be complete and all the backs must match.

Bridwell
06-04-2010, 01:57 PM
Like Mark, I don't think I am ever done. My collection is always a work-in-progress. Even if I have a 'set', I can still find better condition examples of the cards. It's the joy and the curse of collecting, at the same time.

Ron

Robextend
06-04-2010, 02:16 PM
Like Mark, I don't think I am ever done. My collection is always a work-in-progress. Even if I have a 'set', I can still find better condition examples of the cards. It's the joy and the curse of collecting, at the same time.

Ron

Oh, I totally agree with that Ron...nothing I have will ever be "complete". I just wanted some opinions on having one card satisfy multiple collecting goals.

There have been some good opinions here.

The goal for me is to get a different example for each theme, which is where I was leaning towards...

Thanks - Rob